Prepare for UPSC, State PSC, SSC, Banking, Railways and other competitive examinations with these Current Affairs MCQs for 4 September 2026. The set covers space technology, international relations, economy, environment, education, insurance, aviation and the blue economy.
Quick Answer: What are the most important current-affairs topics for 4 September 2026?
The key topics are ISRO’s EOS-05 launch, India–Belgium strategic cooperation, the revised GDP series, sustainable data centres, the SCO Bishkek Declaration, the Public Insurance Registry, Pichavaram Mangroves, AISHE data, Mission Rangeen Machhli 2031 and the trial Index of Services Production.
Current Affairs MCQs for 4 September 2026
Q1. EOS-05, launched by ISRO on 4 September 2026, is significant because it is India’s first imaging satellite placed in:
A) Polar orbit
B) Low Earth Orbit
C) Geosynchronous orbit
D) Sun-synchronous orbit
Answer: C) Geosynchronous orbit
Explanation: EOS-05 provides persistent, near-real-time observation from geosynchronous altitude, unlike Low Earth Orbit satellites that revisit an area periodically.
Q2. EOS-05 was launched aboard which vehicle?
A) PSLV-C62
B) GSLV-F17
C) SSLV-D5
D) LVM3-M7
Answer: B) GSLV-F17
Explanation: EOS-05 was launched from the Second Launch Pad at SDSC-SHAR using GSLV-F17.
Q3. During the September 2026 India–Belgium engagement, Belgium reaffirmed support for India’s candidature for:
A) G7 membership
B) Permanent membership of a reformed UNSC
C) Membership of NATO
D) Presidency of the European Commission
Answer: B) Permanent membership of a reformed UNSC
Explanation: Belgium reiterated its support for India’s permanent membership in an expanded and reformed UN Security Council.
Q4. The India–Belgium Strategic Dialogue was launched in:
A) Brussels
B) New Delhi
C) Antwerp
D) Geneva
Answer: A) Brussels
Explanation: The inaugural India–Belgium Strategic Dialogue was launched in Brussels on 15 July 2026.
Q5. India’s revised national-accounts series discussed in September 2026 uses which base year?
A) 2004–05
B) 2011–12
C) 2020–21
D) 2022–23
Answer: D) 2022–23
Explanation: MoSPI’s revised series adopts 2022–23 as the base year for national-account estimates.
Q6. Under the double-deflation method, real GVA is broadly calculated as:
A) Nominal GDP minus taxes
B) Deflated gross output minus deflated intermediate consumption
C) Total consumption minus total savings
D) Gross output minus depreciation
Answer: B) Deflated gross output minus deflated intermediate consumption
Explanation: Double deflation separately removes price effects from output and intermediate inputs to estimate real value addition.
Q7. The major environmental concern associated with the data-centre boom is:
A) Reduced use of electricity
B) Lower demand for cooling
C) High demand for continuous power and water
D) Elimination of urban heat-island effects
Answer: C) High demand for continuous power and water
Explanation: Data centres require round-the-clock electricity and substantial cooling, often creating pressure on grids and local water resources.
Q8. Which measure best supports environmentally sustainable data-centre growth?
A) Exempting all data centres from environmental reporting
B) Mandatory disclosure of water and electricity use
C) Expanding only coal-based power supply
D) Locating facilities only in water-stressed cities
Answer: B) Mandatory disclosure of water and electricity use
Explanation: Transparency, renewable-energy sourcing, recycled-water use and efficiency standards are key to sustainable digital infrastructure.
Q9. Air Vice Marshal Shakti Sharma became the first non-medical woman officer in India’s defence services to attain:
A) One-star rank
B) Two-star rank
C) Three-star rank
D) Five-star rank
Answer: B) Two-star rank
Explanation: Air Vice Marshal is a two-star rank in the Indian Air Force.
Q10. The equivalent rank of an Air Vice Marshal in the Indian Army is:
A) Brigadier
B) Major General
C) Lieutenant General
D) General
Answer: B) Major General
Explanation: Air Vice Marshal, Major General and Rear Admiral are equivalent two-star ranks in the IAF, Army and Navy respectively.
Q11. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award is administered by the:
A) Ministry of Tourism
B) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D) Ministry of Culture
Answer: B) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Explanation: The award is India’s highest national honour for adventure sports and is administered by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Q12. Tenzing Norgay is historically associated with:
A) First solo circumnavigation of the globe
B) First ascent of Mount Everest with Edmund Hillary
C) Discovery of the South Pole
D) First Indian expedition to Antarctica
Answer: B) First ascent of Mount Everest with Edmund Hillary
Explanation: Tenzing Norgay and Sir Edmund Hillary reached the summit of Mount Everest on 29 May 1953.
Q13. The Bishkek Declaration was adopted at the summit of:
A) BIMSTEC
B) BRICS
C) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
D) ASEAN
Answer: C) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
Explanation: The Bishkek Declaration was adopted at the 26th Council of Heads of State summit of the SCO.
Q14. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure of the SCO is headquartered at:
A) Bishkek
B) Beijing
C) Tashkent
D) Astana
Answer: C) Tashkent
Explanation: SCO headquarters is in Beijing, while its Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure, or RATS, is located in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
Q15. The proposed Public Insurance Registry is anchored by:
A) RBI
B) SEBI
C) IRDAI
D) PFRDA
Answer: C) IRDAI
Explanation: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India proposed the PIR as insurance-sector digital public infrastructure.
Q16. Which feature distinguishes the proposed Public Insurance Registry from a centralised data warehouse?
A) It prohibits use of digital records
B) It follows a federated data-sharing architecture
C) It excludes policyholders from the ecosystem
D) It only stores insurance-premium receipts
Answer: B) It follows a federated data-sharing architecture
Explanation: Source institutions retain the underlying records, while the PIR enables authorised and consent-based interoperability.
Q17. In the hub-and-spoke aviation model, smaller airports primarily function as:
A) Military bases
B) Spokes feeding traffic to central hubs
C) International immigration headquarters
D) Aircraft-manufacturing centres
Answer: B) Spokes feeding traffic to central hubs
Explanation: Smaller airports connect passengers to larger hub airports, from where long-haul domestic or international flights operate.
Q18. Which initiative is associated with biometric/digital passenger processing in Indian airports?
A) UJALA
B) DigiYatra
C) DigiLocker
D) BHASHINI
Answer: B) DigiYatra
Explanation: DigiYatra uses digital identity and facial-recognition-based processing to make airport travel smoother.
Q19. Pichavaram Mangroves are located in:
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Pichavaram Mangroves are located in Cuddalore district on the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu.
Q20. Mangroves are especially valuable for coastal communities because they:
A) Increase coastal erosion
B) Remove all salinity from seawater
C) Provide storm protection and fisheries habitat
D) Prevent all cyclones from forming
Answer: C) Provide storm protection and fisheries habitat
Explanation: Mangroves reduce wave energy, stabilise sediments, support fish nurseries and store blue carbon.
Q21. National Accounts Statistics 2026 was released by:
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Reserve Bank of India
C) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: C) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Explanation: MoSPI compiles and publishes India’s national-account statistics.
Q22. Which of the following is not directly measured through national accounts?
A) Gross Domestic Product
B) Gross Value Added
C) Capital formation
D) Individual voter turnout
Answer: D) Individual voter turnout
Explanation: National accounts cover macroeconomic aggregates such as GDP, consumption, savings and capital formation; voter turnout is an electoral indicator.
Q23. AISHE stands for:
A) All India Survey on Higher Education
B) Annual Indian Survey on Human Employment
C) All India Statistical Handbook on Education
D) Academic Index for School and Higher Education
Answer: A) All India Survey on Higher Education
Explanation: AISHE is the principal survey used to track India’s higher-education institutions, teachers, enrolment and related indicators.
Q24. In higher-education statistics, Gross Enrolment Ratio generally relates to which age group?
A) 6–14 years
B) 14–18 years
C) 18–23 years
D) 25–35 years
Answer: C) 18–23 years
Explanation: GER for higher education is calculated for the 18–23 years age group.
Q25. Mission Rangeen Machhli 2031 is related to:
A) Inland river-linking
B) Ornamental fisheries development
C) Coral mining
D) Marine oil exploration
Answer: B) Ornamental fisheries development
Explanation: The mission seeks to organise and promote ornamental fisheries through scientific management, quality assurance and biosecurity.
Q26. India’s Exclusive Economic Zone normally extends up to:
A) 12 nautical miles
B) 24 nautical miles
C) 100 nautical miles
D) 200 nautical miles
Answer: D) 200 nautical miles
Explanation: Under UNCLOS, a coastal state’s EEZ can extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline.
Q27. The proposed Odisha shipbuilding cluster is located in:
A) Kendrapara
B) Ganjam
C) Balasore
D) Koraput
Answer: A) Kendrapara
Explanation: The proposed ₹24,700-crore shipbuilding and heavy-industries cluster is planned in Kendrapara district, near Paradip.
Q28. Before the Odisha shipbuilding cluster receives final approval, it must obtain, among other requirements:
A) UNESCO World Heritage recognition
B) Coastal Regulation Zone clearance
C) Ramsar designation
D) Biosphere Reserve notification
Answer: B) Coastal Regulation Zone clearance
Explanation: The project requires a Detailed Project Report along with environmental and CRZ clearances.
Q29. The trial Index of Services Production released by MoSPI uses which base year?
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2022–23
D) 2024–25
Answer: D) 2024–25
Explanation: The trial ISP uses 2024–25 as its base year and tracks formal services-sector activity.
Q30. Which was the fastest-growing services sub-sector in the June 2026 trial Index of Services Production?
A) Air transport
B) Real estate
C) Banking
D) Railways
Answer: B) Real estate
Explanation: Real estate recorded the highest reported year-on-year growth of 24.7% in the June 2026 trial ISP.
Key Takeaways for Quick Revision
- EOS-05: GSLV-F17; geosynchronous imaging satellite; Sriharikota.
- India–Belgium: Brussels Strategic Dialogue; support for a reformed UNSC.
- Economy: MoSPI national-account base year is 2022–23; ISP base year is 2024–25.
- SCO: Headquarters in Beijing; RATS in Tashkent.
- Environment: Pichavaram Mangroves are in Cuddalore, Tamil Nadu.
- Blue economy: Mission Rangeen Machhli 2031 concerns ornamental fisheries; EEZ extends to 200 nautical miles.
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the most important space current affair for 4 September 2026?
ISRO’s launch of EOS-05 aboard GSLV-F17 is the major space topic. It is important for questions on geosynchronous orbit, remote sensing, disaster management and agricultural monitoring.
Why is the Public Insurance Registry important for exams?
It is an example of sector-specific digital public infrastructure. Questions may test IRDAI, the federated data model, consent-based sharing, financial inclusion and privacy safeguards.
Which topics are most useful for UPSC Mains?
Data-centre sustainability, India–Belgium relations, SCO cooperation, insurance DPI, mangrove conservation and official-statistics reforms can be used in GS II and GS III answers.
