UGC NET(National Eligibility Test) Law - Previous Years Solved Papers | Paper III November 2017

Questions
1. Answer the following by using code given below. ‘Economic Justice’ is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. It has been provided in

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

Code :
  • (1) (a) and (b) are correct
  • (2) (a) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (b) and (c) are correct
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer:(2)

2. Arrange the following decided cases in a chronological order and answer by using the code given below :

(a) Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and others

(b) Basawaraj v. Special Land Acqisition Officer

(c) Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P

(d) City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment

Code :
  • (1) (c), (b), (d), (a)
  • (2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
  • (3) (d), (b), (c), (a)
  • (4) (b), (c), (a), (d)

Answer:(1)

3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :

Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.

Reason (R) : This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people live, has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient, self-sustaining and capable of managing its own affairs.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer:(1)

4. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer by using the code given below.

(a) Persons in Govt/Judicial service need not resign to participate in District Judge selection process held in “Vijay Kumar Misra and another v. High court of Judicature at Patna” by the Supreme Court of India

(b) The Supreme Court of India held in S. Kazi v. Muslim education society that “All Tribunals are not necessary parties to the proceedings where legality of its orders challenged

(c) The Supreme Court of India observed in Cardamom Marketing Corporation and others v. State of Kerala and others that Social Security to the legal profession becomes an essential part of legal system

(d) The Supreme Court of India held in ‘Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court and others that High Court Judges are exempted from Airport frisking.

Code :
  • (1) Only (b) is correct
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Answer:(2)

5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution of India ?
  • (1) Art 118........Duration of parliament
  • (2) Art 119........Restriction on discussion in Parliament
  • (3) Art 120........Language to be used in Parliament
  • (4) Art 121........courts not to inquire into the Proceedings of Parliament

Answer:(3)

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 6

Code :
  • (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
  • (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
  • (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer:(2)

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill ? Give correct answer by using the code given below :

(a) Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament

(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

(c) President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one - half of the States

(d) President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration

Code :
  • (1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Answer:(2)

8. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 8

Code :
  • (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
  • (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
  • (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Answer:(1)

9. Administrative Law as a separate branch of legal discipline, especially in India, came to be recognised in the middle of :
  • (1) 17TH century
  • (2) 18TH century
  • (3) 19TH century
  • (4) 20TH century

Answer:(4)

10. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :

Assertion (A) : Natural justice is justice of the nature where the lion devours the lamb and the tiger feeds upon the antilope

Reason (R) : Above statement is taken from Union of India V. Tulsiram Patel Code :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct
  • (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  • (3) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

Answer:(4)

11. In which of the following cases, underwritten quotation is taken from ? “Principles of natural justice must be read into the provision of law”.
  • (1) State of U.P. v. Vijay Kumar Tripathi
  • (2) P. Satyanarayana v. Land Reforms Tribunal
  • (3) I.T.C. v. State of Madras
  • (4) Manjula Manjari Devi v. Director of Public Instruction

Answer:(1)

12. Match List - I (Name of Principle) with List - II (Related Case) and answer by using the code below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 12

Code :
  • (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
  • (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
  • (3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
  • (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer:(2)

13. Which of the following is a ground for judicially attacking the exercise of administrative discretion ? Answer by using code below :

(a) Ultra vires the law

(b) Mala fide intent

(c) Arbitrariness

(d) Irrelevant considerations

Code :
  • (1) (a) and (b) are correct
  • (2) (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer:(4)

14. “Writ of certiorari can be issued to quash actions which are administrative in nature”. Above principle was laid down in :
  • (1) Indian Rly. Construction Co. Ltd v. Ajay Kumar
  • (2) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
  • (3) Union of India v. Bashyan
  • (4) Rajesh Kumar v. C.I.T.

Answer:(2)

15. Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal ?
  • (1) A member of Parliament
  • (2) A member of State Legislature
  • (3) A retired High Court judge
  • (4) A retired Chief Justice of a High Court

Answer:(4)

16. “I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception”. This statement is of :
  • (1) Keeton
  • (2) Blackston
  • (3) Cardozo
  • (4) Paton

Answer:(3)

17. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law school ?
  • (1) Emmanuel Kant
  • (2) John Rawls
  • (3) Jeremy Benthem
  • (4) Stammeler

Answer:(3)

18. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 18

Code :
  • (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
  • (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
  • (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer:(2)

19. Which one of the following sources of law has the basis under Article 141 of the Constitution of India ?
  • (1) Supreme legislation
  • (2) Subordinate legislation
  • (3) Colonial legislation
  • (4) Precedent

Answer:(4)

20. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school ?
  • (1) Savigny
  • (2) Ehrlich
  • (3) Henry Main
  • (4) Hegel

Answer:(2)

21. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using code given below : Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest

Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  • (4) (R) is right but (A) is wrong

Answer:(3)

22. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 22

Code :
  • (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
  • (3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
  • (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Answer:(2)

23. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 23

Code :
  • (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
  • (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
  • (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
  • (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer:(3)

24. The Self evident principle of criminal justice is based on :
  • (1) Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege
  • (2) Perils of his life and liberty on refusal of bail
  • (3) Simple Principles based on corrective law
  • (4) To avoid purposeless cruelty

Answer:(1)

25. What is the basic justification on the law of conspiracy ?
  • (1) It does not allow a preventive action because an act of conspiracy is derived when the crime results
  • (2) It dispenses the difficult requirement of proximity in attempt
  • (3) The momentum justifies punishment
  • (4) The object is simply to make of a crime

Answer:(2)

26. Which one of the expressive factors does not constitute sedition ?
  • (1) Disapprobation of the government
  • (2) Excite disrespect against government
  • (3) Commenting on administrative actions of the government
  • (4) Attempting to excite disaffection against government

Answer:(3)

27. The right to private defence against an act done by a public servant is not available :
  • (1) When it is discharged in good faith
  • (2) When it is attempted to be done by him
  • (3) When it was done while he was not in his office
  • (4) When it is strictly to be justifiable by law

Answer:(2)

28. Which of the conditions are essential for enhanced punishment to an offender with previous conviction ?
  • (1) The previous conviction must have been for not less than 3 years of imprisonment
  • (2) The subsequent offence is not punishable with imprisonment for more than 3 years
  • (3) The offence must be an offence relating to property or coin or government stamp
  • (4) The previous conviction was not in India

Answer:(3)

29. Non - Compos mentis denotes :
  • (1) Every person is considered to be sane unless contrary is proved
  • (2) When a criminal act is performed during derrangement
  • (3) When the cognitive facilities are such that he does not know what he has done
  • (4) Non - serene memory not from birth

Answer:(3)

30. In which of the conditions the act will not be wrongful confinement ?
  • (1) Circumscribing limits
  • (2) Malice
  • (3) Moral force
  • (4) Mistaken exercise of power

Answer:(2)

31. Which of the following statement is correct ?
  • (1) A publisher is responsible for publishing a defamatory statement for first time only and not for repeating it
  • (2) Only editor and not printer and publisher are responsible for that defamatory statement in the newspaper
  • (3) Defamatory imputation concerning any person may be conveyed obliquely or indirectly, or by way of question, conjecture, exclamation or by irony
  • (4) The court does not distinguish between “character” and “reputation” for fixing liability against defamation

Answer:(3)

32. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :

Assertion (A) : Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development and as such polluter in liable to pay the cost of the individual sufferers as well as the cost of reversing the damaged ecology

Reason (R) : “Polluter pays principle” is part of the environmental jurisprudence of this country

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer:(1)

33. Which one of the following principle is associated with “Trial Smelter” case ?
  • (1) Principle of sustainable development
  • (2) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another
  • (3) Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development
  • (4) Placing a duty on the State to hold environmental resources in trust for the benefit of public

Answer:(2)

34. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 34

Code :
  • (1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
  • (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
  • (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
  • (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer:(3)

35. Which one of the following statement is wrong ?
  • (1) Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment which is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Art 21 of the Constitution of India
  • (2) The power confered under an Environmental Statute may be exercised only to advance Environment Protection and not for a purpose that would defeat the object of the law
  • (3) Financial constraints of the government may be a reasonable factor to exonorate the Government/Municipal bodies from performing its statutory liability
  • <(4)Precautionary principle imposes the onus of proof on the developer to show his or her action is environmentally benign/li>

Answer:(3)

36. The Supreme Court in which one of the following cases observed that, “the issue of pollution should not be resolved at the cost of the poor people’s livelihood“ ?
  • (1) Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
  • (2) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand
  • (3) M.C. Metha v. Union of India
  • (4) T.N. Godavarman Thimmulpaad v. Union of India

Answer:(3)

37. Under the Wild Life Protection Act, the boundaries of a National Park shall be made in one of the following way :
  • (1) By passing a resolution in the Parliament
  • (2) By passing a resolution in the Legislature of a State
  • (3) By passing a resolution both in the Parliament and State Legislature
  • (4) By passing a resolution in the Municipal Body and State Legislature

Answer:(2)

38. ‘Basel Convention’ is associated with one of the following conventions on :
  • (1) International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
  • (2) The control of transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal
  • (3) Climate Change
  • (4) Protection of the ozone layer

Answer:(2)

39. Which of the following jurists deny legal character of international law ?

(a) Habbes

(b) Pufendorf

(c) Oppenheim

(d) Starke

Code :
  • (1) Only (a)
  • (2) Both (a) and (b)
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all

Answer:(2)

40. In which of the following cases the world court by majority has taken the view that the sources of law are not hierarchal but are necessarily complimentary and inter related ?
  • (1) Nicaragua v. U.S.A
  • (2) Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
  • (3) Portugal v. India
  • (4) Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear

Answer:(1)

41. Who of the following has viewed that there is legal duty on the part of the existing states to recognise any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics of Statehood ?
  • (1) Oppenheim
  • (2) Lauterpacht
  • (3) Philip C. Jessup
  • (4) Anzilloti

Answer:(2)

42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) In Nottelohm’s case the International Court of Justice held that in respect of grant of nationality there is no obligation of the states if that man has no relationship with the State of Naturalisation

(b) In famous Re lynch case it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state he will be called Stateless

(c) Nationality is the principal link between an individual and international law

(d) The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1959 by the General Assembly

Code :
  • (1) Only (a) is correct
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (a) and (c) both are correct

Answer:(4) 43. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below :

Assertion (A) : It is a very important principle of International Law that extradition for political crimes is not allowed.

Reason (R) : Stoeck v. The Public Trustee is a leading case relating to non - extradition of political criminals.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
  • (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Answer:(3)

44. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

(a) United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted in 1977 by the General Assembly

(b) Article 14 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights makes obligatory by states to grant Asylum

(c) The international court of justice explained the distinction between ‘Territorial asylum’ and ‘diplomatic asylum’ in the Colombia v. Perus

(d) The Convention on the status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 22, 1954

Code :
  • (1) Only (a) is not correct
  • (2) (a) and (d) are not correct
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c) all are not correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

Answer:(3)

45. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Each member may not have not more than five representatives in the General Assembly

(b) China, Russia, America, Britain and Italy are the permanent members of the security Council

(c) The members of the Economic and Social Council are elected by the security council, one - third of its members are elected every year by the security council for a term of five years

(d) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the Statute of International Court of Justice

Code :
  • (1) Only (a) and (d) are correct
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Answer:(1)

46. Advisory opinion can be given by the International Court of Justice on legal question :
  • (1) On the request of Security Council only
  • (2) On the request of the General Assembly only
  • (3) On the request of General Assembly or the Security Council both
  • (4) On the request of the Economic and Social Council if authorised by the Security Council

Answer:(3)

47. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :

Assertion (A) : In Mithila, a widow cannot adopt at all, not even if she has the express authority of her husband.

Reason (R) : A widow may adopt under the authority from her husband.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is correct

Answer:(1)

48. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that “We are not prepared to express any definite opinion on the question whether there can be two Karta of a Joint Hindu Family”
  • (1) Moraka Properties v. Biharilal Moraka
  • (2) Union of India v. Sree Ram Bohra
  • (3) Nopany Investment v. Santosh Singh
  • (4) Commissioner of Income Tax v. Govindram Sugar Mills

Answer:(1)

49. In which of the following case, the court held that, “Divorce is good in law through bad in Theology” ?
  • (1) Shah Bano case
  • (2) Bai Tahira case
  • (3) Shamim Ara case
  • (4) Sarabai case

Answer:(4)

50. In Muslim law “Hizanat” related to :
  • (1) Father’s custody of child
  • (2) Brother’s custody of child
  • (3) Mother’s custody of child
  • (4) Sister’s custody of child

Answer:(3)

51. Match the List - I with List - II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 51

Code :
  • (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
  • (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
  • (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
  • (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer:(1)

52. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :

Assertion (A) : ‘Option of Puberty’ is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.

Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false (R) is correct

Answer:(2)

53. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought various grounds for dissolution of marriage based on the principles of :
  • (1) Shia Schools
  • (2) Hanafi School
  • (3) Shafai School
  • (4) Maliki School

Answer:(4)

54. A muslim husband has E - mailed Talaq letter writing “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you,” without the signature of witnesses, Talaq will be :
  • (1) Valid
  • (2) Voidable
  • (3) Void
  • (4) Neither valid nor void or no talaq

Answer:(4)

55. Sec 2(d) of ‘The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines ,”human rights” means the rights relating to __________ of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blank.
  • (1) Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity
  • (2) Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity
  • (3) Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty
  • (4) Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality

Answer:(1)

56. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 ?
  • (1) Sec 3......Appointment of chairperson and other members
  • (2) Sec 4......Removal of a member of the commission
  • (3) Sec 5......Member to act as chairperson in certain times
  • (4) Sec 6......Term of office of members

Answer:(4)

57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the position of the members/chairpersons of N.H.R.C of India ?
  • (1) Justice S. Rajendra Babu - 02.04.2007 to 31.05.2009
  • (2) Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan - 07.06.2010 to 11.05.2015
  • (3) Justice Ms.M. Fathima Beevi- 03.11.1993 to 24.01.1997
  • (4) Justice V.S. Malimat - 05.08.1994 to 12.10.1998

Answer:(4)

58. Match List - I with List - II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 58

Code :
  • (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
  • (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
  • (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
  • (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer:(1)

59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of Children in Armed Conflict was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000

(b) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No.182) was adopted on 15 June, 1999 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its eighty - seventh session

(c) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty Eighth session

(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November, 1989

Code :
  • (1) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
  • (3) (a) and (b) are incorrect
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect

Answer:(2)

60. The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of the following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg ?
  • (1) Karel Vasak
  • (2) Charles O. Lee
  • (3) Maurice Cranston
  • (4) Frederic Bastial

Answer:(1)

61. Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and choose the answer by using the code given below :

(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal

(b) Paramananda Katara v. Union of India

(c) Social Jurists v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi

(d) Sahara House v. Union of India

Code :
  • (1) (b), (a), (c), (d)
  • (2) (d), (a), (b), (c)
  • (3) (b), (d), (c), (a)
  • (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

Answer:(1)

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to ‘absolute liability’principle laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. Answer by using the code below :

(a) The principle was approved except as to quantum of damages in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India

(b) The principle in determining compensation was applied in Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India

(c) The compensation to be awarded must have some broad correlation not only with magnitude and capacity of the enterprise but also with the harm caused by it was held in Deepak Nitrite v. State of Gujrat.

(d) The principle is not followed in India because Parliament could not pass yet Public Liability Insurance Bill, 1991

Code :
  • (1) Only (a) is correct
  • (2) (a) and (b) are correct
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer:(3)

63. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
  • (1) Defamation published in permanent form - Slander
  • (2) Libel is recognized as offence - England
  • (3) Truth of defamatory matter is no defence - Civil law
  • (4) Action lies for defamatory statement - Absolute Privilege

Answer:(2)

64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code below :

Assertion (A) : The existence of a duty to take care is essential before a person can be held liable in negligence.

Reason (R) : The standard of care required is not a matter of law and does vary according to the individuals although it does not vary according to the circumstances.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  • (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Answer:(3)

65. Match List - I with List - II with regard to tort of nuisance and answer by using code below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 65

Code :
  • (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
  • (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
  • (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer:(4)

66. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code below :

Assertion (A) : According to the ‘law of tort’ every wrongful act for which there is no justification or excuse to be treated as a tort.

Reason (R) : Theory of ‘pigeon - hole’ was propounded by Salmond.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  • (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Answer:(2)

67. The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act shall be :
  • (1) Only in derogation of other law
  • (2) No addition to other law
  • (3) Not in addition and in derogation of other law
  • (4) In addition to and not in derogation of other law

Answer:(4)

68. Section 19 - A of the Consumer Protection Act provides that State and National Commissions shall hear as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of the appeal within ninety days from the date of its admission. The Section further empowers the Commissions to make following orders ; answer by using code below :

(a) Ordinarily grant no adjournment unless sufficient cause

(b) To impose costs occasioned by adjournment

(c) Record the reason for delay while disposing of the appeal

(d) Dispose of the appeal ex parte

Code :
  • (1) (a) and (b) are correct
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer:(2)

69. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code below :

Assertion (A) : Where a bill is unintentionally cancelled by the holder or his agent and the cancellation is not apparent thereon, the bill is discharged.

Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 82 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are right
  • (3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  • (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Answer:(1)

70. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 70

Code :
  • (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
  • (2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
  • (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
  • (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer:(1)

71. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

law november 2017 paper iii q 71

Code :
  • (1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
  • (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
  • (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
  • (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer:(2)

72. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :

Assertion (A) : “Goods” means every kind of movable property including actionable claims and money and excludes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.

Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 2 (7) of the Sale of Goods Act.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are right
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  • (3) (A) is wrong but, (R) is right
  • (4) (A) is right but, (R) is wrong

Answer:(2)

73. Which of the following statement is correct ?
  • (1) Notwithstanding any express contract the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
  • (2) Apart from any express contract, the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
  • (3) Apart from any express contract the seller of goods is bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for deliver
  • (4) Apart from any express contract, the buyer of goods is bound to deliver them when the seller applies for delivery

Answer:(2)

74. “Directors are agents of the company”. In which of the following cases above principle was laid down. Answer using code given below :

(a) Ferguson v. Wilson

(b) Elkington and Co. v. Harter

(c) Hampshire Land Co, re

(d) Allen v. Hyatt

Code :
  • (1) Only (a)
  • (2) Only (a) and (b)
  • (3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer:(4)

75. Which of the following case is about doctrine of ultravires ?
  • (1) Royal British Bank v.Turquand
  • (2) Premier Industrial Bank Ltd. v. Carlton Mfg. Co. Ltd.
  • (3) Rajendra Nath Dutta v. Shibendra Nath Mukherjee
  • (4) Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway Co.

Answer:(4)

UGC NET Law November 2017 Paper II