3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Oakeshott says Hobbes is the greatest political thinker produced by the English speaking people.
Reason (R) : No other thinker can match his philosophical foundations and clarity of thought.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(4)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: Option (1)
4. Hegel’s dialectical method was :
(1) to build a science of politics
(2) to accept the Enlightenment’s philosophical method
(3) to assert that the methods of natural sciences and those of social sciences were identical
(4) to solve the problem of contradiction
Answer: Option (4)
5. Who distinguished the Young Marx from the Old Marx ?
(1) Althusser
(2) Lenin
(3) Miliband
(4) Miliband
Answer: Option (1)
6. Gramsci characterised Fascism as :
(1) Hegemonic revolution
(2) Passive revolution
(3) Passive revolution
(4) Petit Bourgeois revolution
Answer: Option (2)
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Gandhi was critical of the material civilisation and particularly detested the Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R) : He believed that Industrial Revolution was destroying deeper values.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
8. Roy - Lenin debate centred around :
(1) Dialectical Materialism
(2) Marxist Theory of History
(3) The Theory of Surplus Value
(4) Colonial Question
Answer: Option (4)
9. Deliberative Democracy is :
(1) A theory that champions exclusively Human Rights.
(2) A theory that puts forward environment as the most important agenda.
(3) A theory that concentrates on refining the familiar framework of liberal democracy.
(4) A theory that wants to usher in socialism by democratic means.
Answer: Option (3)
10. Why was behaviouralism shortlived ?
(1) Inability to evolve consensus
(2) Too much dogmatism
(3) It was a localised event
(4) Coloured by Cold War prejudices
Answer: Option (1)
11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : According to Weber, comparative politics could be comprehended within the larger framework of culture, which he did by demolishing Marx’s theory of economic determinism.
Reason (R) : As without this rejection, his theory was totally untenable.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Institutional approach can help in mapping the landscape of politics.
Reason (R) : The goal of institutional approach is to reconcile the competing values of
individual freedom and collective equality.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
13. Which century according to Easton is “The Age of Scientific Method” ?
(1) Seventeenth Century
(2) Eighteenth Century
(3) Nineteenth Century
(4) Twentieth Century
Answer: Option (3)
14. Aristotle’s classification of constitutions was based on the categories of :
(1) who rules and who benefits from the rule
(2) ways and means of perpetuating in power
(3) accepting the basic formulations of Plato’s The Republic
(4) to ensure rule of the majority
Answer: Option (1)
15. Which one of the following countries follow a semi-presidential system ?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Germany
(3) Italy
(4) France
Answer: Option (3)
16. Who challenged the established view that in Great Britain the Conservative party was elitist and leader dominated, while the Labour party was characterised by a high measure of internal democracy ?
(1) Robert Michels
(2) Robert Mekenzie
(3) Tony Benn
(4) Mosei Ostrogonski
Answer: Option (2)
17. Bureaucratic authoritarianism is a variant of :
(1) Military rule
(2) Fascism
(3) Communism
(4) Despotism
Answer: Option (1)
18. Which theory held that as societies developed they would become capitalist democracies, converging around a shared set of values and characteristics ?
(1) Dependency Theory
(2) Structural Functional Theory
(3) Modernization Theory
(4) Post-modernization Theory
Answer: Option (3)
19. Legitimation crisis as an alternative to Weberian approach to legitimacy was developed by :
(1) Miliband and Sweezy
(2) Plekhanov and Lenin
(3) Camus and Sartre
(4) Habermas and Offe
Answer: Option (4)
20. Who said Revolution meant a drastic sudden substitution of one group in charge of the running of a territorial political entity by another ?
(1) Hannah Arendt
(2) Theda Skocpol
(3) Crane Brinton
(4) Hubert Johnson
Answer: Option (3)
21. Put the following events in their chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below :
Poona Pact, Third Round Table Conference, Swaraj Party, Communal Award, Nehru Report.
Code :
(1) Swaraj Party, Poona Pact, Third Round Table Conference, Nehru Report, Communal Award
(4) Nehru Report, Third Round Table Conference, Swaraj Party, Poona Pact, Communal Award
Answer: Option (2)
22. Which of the following parties/groups the Cabinet Mission did not recognise ?
(1) The Muslim League
(2) The Congress
(3) The Sikhs
(4) The Princes Guild
Answer: Option (3)
23. Which of the following come within the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Right to shelter
(b) Right to good roads
(c) Right to reputation
(d) Right to pure drinking water
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
24. Which of the following cases reflect on the elements of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution ? Choose correct answer from the code given below :
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj Narain
(b) Kesavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala
(c) S.P. Gupta V. Union of India
(d) Minerva Mills V. Union of India
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c), (d) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: Option (2)
25. When were the rules regarding Department Related Parliamentary standing committees made in India ?
(1) 1977
(2) 1981
(3) 1989
(4) 2010
Answer: Option (3)
26. Which of the following state has a seat reserved on the basis of religion in the Legislative Assembly ?
(1) Goa
(2) Mizoram
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Sikkim
Answer: Option (4)
27. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Answer: Option (1)
28. Who among the following was not a member of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations ?
(1) Justice R.S. Sarkaria
(2) G.V. Ramakrishna
(3) B. Shivaraman
(4) Dr. S.R. Sen
Answer: Option (2)
29. Since when the Election Commission of India has become a three member body ?
(1) 1989
(2) 1990
(3) 1993
(4) 2001
Answer: Option (3)
30. Arrange the following peasant movements in their chronological order. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) Tebhaga
(b) Champaran
(c) Singur
(d) Bardoli
Code :
(1) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(2) (b), (d), (a), (c)
(3) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(4) (d), (b), (c), (a)
Answer: Option (2)
31. Which of the following approaches is the precursor of the Ecological approach ?
(1) Classical approach
(2) Human Relations approach
(3) Systems approach
(4) Behavioural approach
Answer: Option (3)
32. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: Option (4)
33. Who among the following has specified six qualities of an administrator / manager - physical, mental, moral, general education, special knowledge and experience ?
(1) Fayol
(2) Gulick
(3) Urwick
(4) Follet
Answer: Option (1)
34. Which of the following is an example of auxiliary agency ?
(1) Department of Defence
(2) Department of Home
(3) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(4) Public Works Department
Answer: Option (4)
35. Which one of the following types of bureaucracy tend to exhibit a bias towards party interests ?
(1) Caste bureaucracy
(2) Patronage bureaucracy
(3) Guardian bureaucracy
(4) Ruling bureaucracy
Answer: Option (2)
36. Which of the following are excluded from the RTI Act ?
(a) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
(b) Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
(c) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(d) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
37. Which of the following commissions/committees recommended that the financial year should be from January 1 to December 31 ?
(1) L.K. Jha Committee
(2) Sarkaria Commission
(3) Sixth Pay Commission
(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
Answer: Option (1)
38. Which one of the following types of training prepares future recruits for the public service ?
(1) Informal training
(2) Formal training
(3) Pre - entry training
(4) Post - entry training
Answer: Option (3)
39. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Vigilance Commission ?
(a) It was set up on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee
(b) It is a statutory body
(c) It is a multi-member commission
(d) It exercises superintendence over the working of the CBI
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Reason (R) : It is in the nature of obligatory payment.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: Option (1)
41. Which of the following combination game theory utilizes to analyse strategic interaction among decision - makers ?
(1) Mathematics and Reason
(2) Reason and Logic
(3) Logic and Rationality
(4) Mathematics and Logic
Answer: Option (3)
42. Consider the following statements with regard to MTCR :
(a) China is not a member of MTCR
(b) India is a member of MTCR
(c) Aims at restricting complete rocket systems
(d) Pakistan is a member of MTCR
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (b), (d), (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (d), (b), (a)
Answer: Option (1)
43. Which one of the following is not a criteria of just war ?
(1) Be authorized by a sovereign prince
(2) Be proportionate
(3) Be pursued for just intent
(4) be undeclared
Answer: Option (4)
44. Whose Presidency in America was marked by ‘war on terrorism’ ?
(1) George H W Bush
(2) George W Bush Jr
(3) Bill Clinton
(4) Barack Obama
Answer: Option (2)
45. A unipolar condition to which George W Bush Jr referred as a balance of power that favours :
(1) Security
(2) Cooperation
(3) Peace
(4) Freedom
Answer: Option (4)
46. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answers from the code given below :
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: Option (3)
47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : India is seeking permanent membership of Security Council of UNO.
Reason (R) : India is a nuclear power.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: Option (2)
48. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: Option (4)
49. Consider the following statements with regard to Non aligned movement.
(a) Julius Nyerere was one of the founding members of NAM
(b) India hosted seventh NAM summit
(c) The seventeenth NAM summit was held in Venezuela
(d) The headquarters of NAM is in Belgrade
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
50. Which one of the following is not part of ‘Three Pillars’ of R2P (Responsibility to Protect) ?
(1) If a state fails to protect its population, International community take collective action in accordance with the UN Charter
(2) It is state’s responsibility to protect its population from four mass atrocity crimes
(3) It is the responsibility of International Community to protect people from crimes against humanity
(4) International Community’s responsibility to assist individual states in meeting the responsibility
