3. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: Option (2)
4. Who feared that Marx’s dictatorship of the proletariat would become dictatorship on the proletariat ?
(1) Lassalle
(2) Proudhon
(3) Bakunin
(4) Luxemberg
Answer: Option (3)
5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) :In spite of the fact that Rawls theory has strong procedural features it can also be seen as a major contribution to social justice.
Reason (R) :He is categorical that there is a need for rational justification of all departures from equality.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: Option (1)
6. Convergence theory pointed out the convergence between :
(1) advanced capitalism and developed socialism
(2) manufacturing nations and raw material exporting countries
(3) national interests in international organizations
(4) need to have common policy to fight climate change
Answer: Option (1)
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) :
Lenin’s revolutionary seizure of power is like a coup and negation of Marxism.
Reason (R) :
Marx thought a communist party would capture power peacefully.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (3)
8. Mao’s most original contribution was in emphasizing the revolutionary role of the :
(1) Proletariat
(2) Intelligentsia
(3) Combination of the proletariat and the peasantry
(4) Peasantry
Answer: Option (4)
9. Who questioned the view that Locke was a defender of the Glorious Revolution ?
(1) Tawney
(2) Sabine
(3) Macpherson
(4) Ashcraft
Answer: Option (4)
10. Which political thinker rejects Aristotle completely ?
(1) Machiavelli
(2) Hobbes
(3) Locke
(4) Rousseau
Answer: Option (2)
11. Who described Rousseau as a totalitarian democrat ?
(1) Karl Popper
(2) Carl Friedrich
(3) Hannah Arendt
(4) Jacob Talmon
Answer: Option (4)
12. Power, not right is the focal point for Hobbes. Why ?
(1) Power is more important than right.
(2) Rights will entail duties.
(3) There is an inherent conflict between power and right.
(4) Difficult to obtain agreement among individuals.
Answer: Option (4)
13. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: Option (2)
14. Which of the following is true of Machiavelli’s political theory ?
(a) Idolized Ancient Rome
(b) Used History extensively to draw lessons for state-craft
(c) Private army needed for the success of a prince / ruler
(d) Blamed religion for Italy’s moral regeneration
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
Answer: Option (1)
15. How did Gandhi describe himself ?
(1) Philosophical Anarchist
(2) Liberal democrat
(3) Social Democrat
(4) Communist
Answer: Option (1)
16. Which of the following is true of Aristotle’s contribution to comparative method ?
(a) To study the then existing political systems
(b) To develop an empirical science of politics
(c) To arrive at the Ideal type
(d) To apply abstract ideas in practice
Code :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (2)
17. New Institutionalism emphasises on :
(1) Institutions rather than individuals
(2) A balance between institutions and individuals
(3) A group theory in politics
(4) Economics dominates over politics
Answer: Option (1)
18. Easton described his drastic revision in political science in 1969 as :
(1) Counter Reformation
(2) Genuine Revolution
(3) Correction to earlier studies
(4) Abandoning his own earlier research
Answer: Option (2)
19. The essential framework of liberal political economy was provided by :
(1) Locke
(2) Hume
(3) Montesquieu
(4) Smith
Answer: Option (4)
20. What has mainly accounted for the evolution of the unwritten constitution of Great Britain ?
(1) The British practice of following continuity and change peacefully
(2) The British acceptance of conventions as sacred as law but not enforceable in courts
(3) The British belief that the ‘King can do no wrong’
(4) The common law tradition in Britain
Answer: Option (4)
21. In which country the practice of ‘once a speaker always a speaker’ is followed ?
(1) USA
(2) UK
(3) India
(4) Switzerland
Answer: Option (1)
22. The Supreme Court’s right to judicial review was first established in :
(1) USA
(2) India
(3) France
(4) Switzerland
Answer: Option (1)
23. In which of the following countries individual citizen’s rights have developed by the significant intervention of the judiciary :
(1) Switzerland
(2) U.K
(3) U.S.A
(4) France
Answer: Option (3)
24. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer: Option (4)
25. Given below are those statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
(R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) :
The theories of development of the 1950’s like behaviouralism, could never develop an universally accepted paradigm because they were locally dated.
Reason (R) :
They originated during the Cold War period and consequently biased.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
26. Political Socialization deals with :
(1) Process of formulating political ideas
(2) Career planning and political socialization
(3) Elaborating the theories of Durkheim
(4) Elaborating the theories of Weber
Answer: Option (1)
27. Subject - participatory culture was associated with :
(1) Erstwhile communist regimes
(2) Fascist regimes
(3) Post Colonial Societies
(4) Non Ideological dictatorships
Answer: Option (1)
28. Who has commented that politics is about diversity and conflict and the essential ingredient of its existence is scarcity ?
(1) Leftwich
(2) Lasswell
(3) Crick
(4) Millett
Answer: Option (2)
29. Huntington criticizes the modernization theory for not taking into account :
(1) Presence of several competing value systems or cultures in traditional society
(2) The difference between base and superstructure
(3) The question of leadership
(4) Overdeveloped nature of modernizing nations
Answer: Option (1)
30. Who among the following provided an economic approach to elitism ?
(1) Pareto
(2) Mosca
(3) Mills
(4) Burnham
Answer: Option (4)
31. According to whom the Indian Constitution aimed at the tripartite goal of national unity, democracy and social revolution as three distinct strands interwoven into a “seamless web” ?
(1) W.H. Morris Jones
(2) Rajni Kothari
(3) Granville Austin
(4) Sunil Khilnani
Answer: Option (3)
32. Which of the following grounds come within the ambit of reasonable restrictions put by the state on the exercise of freedom under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Security of state
(b) Public order
(c) Decency or morality
(d) Contempt of court
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
33. Once approved by Parliament for how long can the proclamation of financial emergency remain in operation ?
(1) 2 months
(2) 3 years
(3) Till the term of that Parliament
(4) Indefinitely
Answer: Option (4)
34. Consider the following statements about the Vice - President of India and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) Elected by the system of proportional representation by a single transferable vote
(b) Elected by all the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(c) Members of State Assemblies have no right to vote
(d) He is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Code :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option (3)
35. Arrange the chronological order of the following cases and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha V. Union of India
(b) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
(c) ADM Jabalpur V. Shiv Kant Shukla
(d) BALCO Employees Union V. Union of India
Code :
(1) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(2) (a), (d), (c), (b)
(3) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(4) (b), (a), (d), (c)
Answer: Option (1)
36. Which of the following principles evolved from the judgement delivered in Bommai case in relation to Article 356 ? Choose correct answer from the code given below :
(a) The proclamation issued under Article 356 is subject to judicial review
(b) The state Assembly should not be dissolved immediately after issuing proclamation
(c) The Assembly should be dissolved only after the Parliament has approved the proclamation
(d) The court may require the Union Government to disclose the material on the basis of which it was decided to invoke Art. 356
Code :
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
37. Justice Punchhi Commission is related to :
(1) Urban Governance
(2) Union - State Relations
(3) District Administration
(4) Electoral Reforms
Answer: Option (2)
38. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer: Option (2)
39. Which committee felt that the Panchayati Raj institutions could have survived well if they had been encouraged well by entrusting responsibilities as a “vanguard of development in village India” ?
(1) Asoka Mehta
(2) L.M. Singhvi
(3) G V K Rao
(4) P.K. Thungan
Answer: Option (1)
40. Who was the Chief Election Commissioner who wrote a letter to the President of India recommending the removal of Election Commissioner ?
(1) Navin Chawla
(2) N. Gopalaswami
(3) T.N. Seshan
(4) M.S. Gill
Answer: Option (2)
41. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) :
Law and order is the responsibility of the District Magistrate.
Reason (R) :
Law and order is still one of the major problems in India.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
42. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: Option (2)
43. Who of the following was not a member of the Towards Equality report ?
(1) Lotika Sarkar
(2) Neera Dogra
(3) Vina Mazumdar
(4) Sushila Nayar
Answer: Option (4)
44. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: Option (2)
45. Which of the following are the main problems of nation building in India ? Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) Poverty
(b) Illiteracy
(c) Trade Unions
(d) Corruption
(e) Regional Political Parties
(f) Terrorism
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (e), (f)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e), (f)
(3) (a), (b), (d), (f)
(4) (b), (d), (e), (f)
Answer: Option (3)
46. Which of the following are the models of reforms identified by Peters as alternatives to the traditional public administration ?
(a) Market Model
(b) Participatory State Model
(c) Flexible Government Model
(d) Deregulated Government Model
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
47. Arrange the following administrative thinkers in chronological order :
(a) Willoughby
(b) M.P. Follet
(c) F.W. Riggs
(d) Robert Dahl
(1) (b), (a), (d) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c), (b) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
48. Who among the following gave the 4P - Formula for departmental Organisation ?
(1) Fayol
(2) Urwick
(3) Gulick
(4) Mooney
Answer: Option (3)
49. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) :
Herbert Simon has ridiculed the classical theory of organisation as a machine model theory.
Reason (R) :
Classicists are too much preoccupied with the formal structural part of organisation and that too at the cost of human factors.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
50. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Right to Information Act ?
(1) The Right to Information Act came into force on 12 October 2005.
(2) The Freedom of Information Act, 2002 has been repealed.
(3) The Official Secrets Act, 1923 has also been repealed.
(4) Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions have been constituted.
Answer: Option (3)
51. 73RD Constitutional Amendment provided for :
(a) Constitutional status to rural and urban bodies
(b) Three - tier system for all Panchayati Raj Institutions
(c) Direct elections of Chairpersons and members of Panchayati Raj Institutions at all levels
(d) Audit of panchayat funds by CAG
(1) (b) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
52. The Central Information Commission consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners :
(1) not exceeding three in number
(2) not exceeding five in number
(3) not exceeding seven in number
(4) not exceeding ten in number
Answer: Option (4)
53. Who among the following said, ”Development administration is an action - oriented and goal - oriented administrative system” ?
(1) F.W. Riggs
(2) Edward Weidner
(3) Ferrel Heady
(4) H. Walker
Answer: Option (2)
54. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73RD Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 ?
(a) Providing reservation for backward classes
(b) Setting up a State Finance Commission
(c) Making the Panchayats autonomous bodies
(d) Giving the Panchayats financial powers in relation to taxes, fees, etc.
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
55. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: Option (2)
56. Promotion to higher position involves :
(a) Change of title
(b) Change of pay
(c) Change of duties
(d) Change of responsibility
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
57. The process by which the selected candidate is sent for an appointment is known as :
(1) Selection
(2) Appointment
(3) Certification
(4) Placement
Answer: Option (3)
58. Defending policy is the function of :
(1) Line agency
(2) Staff agency
(3) Auxiliary agency
(4) Both Staff and Line agencies
Answer: Option (1)
59. Who among the following are the critics of the bureaucratic theory ?
(a) Talcott Parsons
(b) Michel Crozier
(c) Robert Presthus
(d) F.W. Riggs
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
60. Who among the following rejected the politics - administration dichotomy ?
(1) Woodrow Wilson
(2) Frank Goodnow
(3) Herbert Simon
(4) Robert Merton
Answer: Option (3)
61. Who was of the opinion that survival depends on a state’s material capabilities and its alliances with other states ?
(1) John Mearsheimer
(2) Kenneth Waltz
(3) Thucydides
(4) J. Snyder
Answer: Option (2)
62. Consider the following statements :
(a) Neo realism and neo liberalism are rationalist approaches
(b) Neo realism and feminism are reflectivist approaches
(c) Post - structuralism and neo liberalism are rationalist approaches
(d) Feminism and post structuralism are reflectivist approaches
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
63. Which of the following statements are true about soft power ?
(a) Soft power can be used by state actors
(b) Soft power can be used by non state actors
(c) Soft power is the second face of power
(d) Soft power is a form of idealism
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c), (d) and (a)
Answer: Option (3)
64. Which one of the following is not a Kantian influence that acts as a constraint on War ?
(1) Democracies will refrain from using force against other democracies
(2) Economically important trade creates incentives to maintain peaceful relations
(3) Global civil society exerts itself
(4) International organisations can constrain decision makers by promoting peace
Answer: Option (3)
65. Find out the incorrect statement/s about Johan Galtung’s models of conflict, violence and peace :
(a) He suggested that conflict could be viewed as triangle with contradiction, attitude and behaviour
(b) He talked of structural, cultural, direct and indirect violence
(c) He discussed about peace building, peace making and peace keeping
(d) He explained about direct war, proxy war and Intrastate
Code :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option (2)
66. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: Option (2)
67. Which one of the following pair is mismatched ?
Answer: Option (2)
68. Which of the following have emphasis in India’s nuclear deterrent :
(1) Large numbers and deterrent force
(2) Nuclear parity and capability to retaliate
(3) Small numbers and capability to deter
(4) Deterrent force and nuclear parity
Answer: Option (3)
69. Consider the following statements about National Security Council (NSCI) of India :
(a) It’s a three tier organisation consisting of strategic policy group, joint intelligence committee and National Security Advisory Board.
(b) Ministers for External Affairs, Defence, Home, Finance and Commerce are its members
(c) It was formed in the year 1998
(d) The former National Security Advisers were Brajesh Mishra, J.N. Dixit, K.P. Singh.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (d), (c) and (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (c), (d) and (b)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer: Option (2)
70. Which one of the following is/are incorrect statement/s :
(a) The ‘Neemrana Dialogue’ is on India - China Relations
(b) The ‘Ottawa Dialogue’ is on India - Pakistan Relations
(c) Shangri-La Dialogue is on India - Singapore Relations
(d) Raisina Dialogue is India’s flagship conference of geopolitics and geoeconomics
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
71. Consider the following statements about India’s role in United Nations. Which of the statements are correct ?
(a) India is a major contributor to UN Democracy Fund
(b) Indian delegation to San Francisco Conference of 1945 was led by Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(c) In 2001, India piloted a draft comprehensive convention on International Terrorism
(d) India submitted along with other countries an Action Plan for phased elimination of nuclear weapons 1996 - 2020
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : States continue to exist as sovereign states.
Reason (R) : Globalization has weakened the Westphalian state system.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answer: Option (2)
73. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer: Option 1)
74. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank established by BRICS
(2) Asian Intrastructure Investment Bank is an initiative of China
(3) WTO recognises least developed countries as those which are designated as such by
(4) International Finance Corporation offers political risk insurance and encourages private sector development in developing countries
Answer: Option (4)
75. Consider the following statements with regard to Security Council :
(a) India became member of Security Council seven times
(b) Japan became a member of Security Council eleven times
(c) It appoints non permanent members
(d) It appoints Secretary General
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
